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Pourquoi est *MER* feminin?

 
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Porthos
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PostPosted: Fri Oct 20, 2006 1:55 am    Post subject: Pourquoi est *MER* feminin? Reply with quote

Otras idiomas latinas usan el articulo masculino para esta palabra. Por que no frances?

It. - il mare
Esp. - el mar
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PostPosted: Fri Oct 20, 2006 10:33 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Pourquoi <mer> est féminin ? Excellente question !

D'abord un petit aperçu panroman :

    MASCULIN
    castillan <el mar>
    catalan <el mar>
    italien <il mare>
    lombard <ul mar>
    piedmontais <ël mar>
    portugais <o mar>

    FÉMININ
    catalan <la mar>
    français <la mer>
    gascon <la mar> <era mar>
    occitan <la mar>
    poitevin <la maer>
    roumain <marea>
    wallon <li mer>

    NEUTRE
    latin <mare-maris>

Since no neolatin language (except Romanian perhaps) has kept the grammatical neuter, all of them went for either masculine or feminine (which is the grammatical gender for the Romanian equivalent of Fr <la mer>) — probably after a period of hesitation (or specialisation) which, for instance, affected old castilian <mar> and is still affecting catalan <mar>.


You find the same phenomenon with :
    La (n) <lac-lactis> —> Fr (m) <le lait>, Lo (m) <ul lacc> & Wa (m) <li lècê> vs Sp (f) <la leche>
    La (m or n) <sal-salis> —> Fr (m) <le sel> & Po (m) <o sal> vs Oc (f) <la sal> & Sp (f) <la sal>
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Porthos
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PostPosted: Fri Oct 20, 2006 7:52 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I think it is more appropriate for it to be a feminine word. I never understood why it's masculine in Spanish. Just like I don't understand why "cerveza" should be feminine, while "vino" is masculine. That doesn't make any sense.
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PostPosted: Fri Oct 20, 2006 11:42 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Porthos wrote:
I think it is more appropriate for it to be a feminine word.

Words like <mer>, <table>, <voiture>, <ordinateur>, <téléphone>, <fatigue>, <déconceptualisation>, <embarras>, <avenir> & <fscalité> are
*SEMANTIC* NEUTERS. They refer to things, not to humans nor to animals. Things are deprived of sex and thus cannot deemed to be sexed : sexlessness (a very anthropomorphic prospect anyway...) is part of their semantism. So lexies referring to things can be neither *SEMANTIC* MASCULINES nor *SEMANTIC* FEMININES.

However <mer>, <table>, <voiture>, <fatigue>, <déconceptualisation> & <fscalité> are *GRAMMATICAL* FEMININES while <ordinateur>, <téléphone>, <embarras> & <avenir> are *GRAMMATICAL* MASCULINES.




Porthos wrote:
I never understood why it's masculine in Spanish.


Learning the history of a language may be a good start if you want to understand why a word turns out to be a grammatical masculine rather than a grammatical feminine.

On the other hand, language history is totally worthless if you want to know if a word is a semantic masculine (<boy>, <man>, <bull>, <grandfather> etc) or a semantic feminine (<woman>, <girl>, <my aunt>, <chairwoman> etc) or a semantic strong neuter (<aircraft>, <chair>, <letter>, <screen> etc) or a semantic weak neuter (<French people>, <they>, <the Smiths>, <my family> etc).



Porthos wrote:
Just like I don't understand why "cerveza" should be feminine, while "vino" is masculine. That doesn't make any sense.


Well, morphology (in addition to language history) can help. In the case of Spanish, nouns ending with <o> are usually grammatical masculines while those ending with <a> are generally grammatical feminines — exceptions abound of course.
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Porthos
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PostPosted: Sat Oct 21, 2006 12:59 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Yes, exceptions do abound. And they can be quite troubling for a new student of Spanish. I remember. I still use the wrong article for some words, because I'll assume that a word which ends in "o" is masculine, but that is not necessarily true.
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PostPosted: Mon Oct 30, 2006 11:09 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

En Espagnol on dit "El mar" et aussi "la mar".

In spanish we can say both "el mar" and "la mar"
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PostPosted: Tue Oct 31, 2006 12:20 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

fab wrote:
En Espagnol on dit "El mar" et aussi "la mar".

In spanish we can say both "el mar" and "la mar"


Intéressant. Donc la variation quant au genre issue de l'ancien castillan s'est maintenue jusqu'à nos jours. Sais-tu si cette variation est neutre ou bien reflète une spécialisation stylistique (poésie etc) voire sémantique peut-être ?
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PostPosted: Tue Oct 31, 2006 9:32 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Je sais que les hispanophones disent plus souvent "el mar" que "la mar", mais on m'as toujours appris que les deux formes existent. c'est possible que "la mar" soit une forme plus litteraire que orale.
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PostPosted: Tue Oct 31, 2006 10:06 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I never hear Spanish speakers in Mexico or California use "la mar". Maybe in Spain it is different.
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PostPosted: Wed Nov 15, 2006 7:28 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Je sais pas pourquoi mais la plupart des mots qui se terminent par –e sont souvent féminins.

Je crois que c’est pareil en espagnol ou en italien où ceux qui se terminent par –a sont féminins tandis que ceux qui se finissent par –o sont masculins.
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PostPosted: Wed Nov 15, 2006 9:38 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

loic wrote:
Je sais pas pourquoi mais la plupart des mots qui se terminent par –e sont souvent féminins.


Parce que souvent, mais pas toujours, la terminaison <e> est une francisation du latin <a>, marqueur féminin par défaut.
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PostPosted: Sun Aug 05, 2007 6:55 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Quote:
Je sais que les hispanophones disent plus souvent "el mar" que "la mar", mais on m'as toujours appris que les deux formes existent. c'est possible que "la mar" soit une forme plus litteraire que orale.


Yes, you're right. But "la mar" is quite used orally as well. Almost every fisherman here in Peru uses "la mar" instead of "el mar".

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