Posted: Thu Jan 04, 2007 5:31 am Post subject: I don't understand how
if Spanish is mutually intelligible with Catalan, which is mutually intelligible with Occitan, which is mutually intelligible with French, then, theoretically, shouldn't Spanish and French be mutually intelligible?
Location: San Francisco, Noord-Kalifornië, Noord-Amerika
Posted: Thu Jan 04, 2007 7:55 am Post subject:
It's like the game Telephone, where one person whispers something to the next person, who whispers what he thought he heard to the next person, and so on, until the last person says the result out loud and it's very different from what the first person said. The second person says something that's pretty close to what the first person said, and the third person says something pretty close to what the second person said, but the differences between what #1 and #2 say won't be the same differences as the differences between what #2 and #3 say.
It's like the game Telephone, where one person whispers something to the next person, who whispers what he thought he heard to the next person, and so on, until the last person says the result out loud and it's very different from what the first person said.
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